Download CCSA 156-215.81 Dumps For Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81

test2022-07-04T06:28:23+00:00

Check Point Security Administrator (CCSA R81) exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of Check Point CCSA R81. To pass the 156-215.81 test on the first try, you must have accurate syllabus information and an excellent study guide. FreeTestShare high quality CCSA 156-215.81 Dumps give you in-depth knowledge of the CCSA R81 exam syllabus. This information should be obtained at the outset of your preparation because it will assist you in developing an effective study plan. Our CCSA 156-215.81 Dumps make your preparation process simply because they are designed to help you pass your Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 exam on the first try.

You can now use our free 156-215.81 practice test to help you prepare for the exam.

Page 1 of 11

1. How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VP

Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

2. Can a Check Point gateway translate both source IP address and destination IP address in a given packet?

Yes.

No.

Yes, but only when using Automatic NA

Yes, but only when using Manual NA

3. Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

Application Control

Threat Emulation

Anti-Virus

Advanced Networking Blade

4. Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Threat Emulation

Access Control

QoS

Threat Prevention

5. How do you configure the Security Policy to provide uses access to the Captive Portal through an external (Internet) interface?

Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.

No action is necessary. This access is available by default.

Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Policy access on all interfaces.

Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Policy access for an external interface.

6. What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?

degrades performance as the Security Policy grows in size

requires additional Check Point appliances

requires additional software subscription

increases cost

7. Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

User and objects databases

Network databases

SmartConsole databases

User databases

8. To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then reboot

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu

Edit /proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot

run fw ctl multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot

9. Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Internal Certificate Authority

Token

One-time Password

Certificate

10. Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel.

Which port is used for this?

UDP port 265

TCP port 265

UDP port 256

TCP port 256

Page 2 of 11

11. Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .

Firewall policy install

Threat Prevention policy install

Anti-bot policy install

Access Control policy install

12. Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

Application Control

Data Awareness

Identity Awareness

Threat Emulation

13. According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a non-managed Check Point Gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

Gateway

Interoperable Device

Externally managed gateway

Network Node

14. Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10.

What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

CPUSE online upgrade

CPUSE offline upgrade

SmartUpdate upgrade

15. What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”. cap”number of captures”?

Space bar

16. What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Clustered Protocol

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

Control Cluster Protocol

Cluster Control Protocol

17. In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories.

Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Limit

Resource

Custom Application / Site

Network Object

18. Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

On specific tunnels in the community

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

19. Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Pentagon, star, and combination

Star, octagon, and combination

Combined and star

Meshed, star, and combination

20. Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted communication.

Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?

Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a separate log file for documentation.

Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert action or customized messaging.

Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.

Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his wrongdoings.

Page 3 of 11

21. To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Revisions

Gateway installations

Installation history

Gateway history

22. Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor

SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate

Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI

23. You are going to perform a major upgrade.

Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

backup

logswitch

Database Revision

snapshot

24. Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

Explicit Drop

Implied Drop

Explicit CleanUp

Implicit Drop

25. During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

26. On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user

Obligatory usage of Captive Portal

The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication

27. Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

Quicker than Full sync

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

28. Choose the SmartLog property that is TRUE.

SmartLog has been an option since release R71.10.

SmartLog is not a Check Point product.

SmartLog and SmartView Tracker are mutually exclusive.

SmartLog is a client of SmartConsole that enables enterprises to centrally track log records and security activity with Google-like search.

29. Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

Password

Certificate

Token

Pre-shared secret

30. There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API.

Which one is NOT correct?

Using Web Services

Using Mgmt_cli tool

Using CLISH

Using SmartConsole GUI console

Page 4 of 11

31. Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Save Policy

Install Database

Save session

Install Policy

32. Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.

To edit the Implicit rules you go to: Launch Button > Policy > Global Properties > Firewall.

Implied rules are fixed rules that you cannot change.

You can directly edit the Implicit rules by double-clicking on a specific Implicit rule.

You can edit the Implicit rules but only if requested by Check Point support personnel.

33. What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Verification tool

Verification licensing

Automatic licensing

Automatic licensing and Verification tool

34. The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Major version upgrades to R77.30

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

All upgrades

35. Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Formal; corporate

Local; formal

Local; central

Central; local

36. Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

SmartManager

SmartConsole

Security Gateway

Security Management Server

37. Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

When Joe logs in, Bob will be log out automatically.

Since they both are log in on different interfaces, they both will be able to make changes.

If Joe tries to make changes, he won't, database will be locked.

Bob will be prompt that Joe logged in.

38. Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Incoming

Internal

External

Outgoing

39. To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Protections

IPS Protections

Profiles

ThreatWiki

40. What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

Used to better optimize a policy.

Page 5 of 11

41. All R77 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one.

Which of the Security Servers can NOT perform authentication?

FTP

SMTP

HTTP

RLOGIN

42. In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server

From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server

From an 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance

From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance

43. Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

Two; security management and endpoint security

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

44. Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

There are two default users that cannot be deleted and one SmartConsole Administrator.

45. Which of the following is NOT a set of Regulatory Requirements related to Information Security?

ISO 37001

Sarbanes Oxley (SOX)

HIPPA

PCI

46. Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?

Run cpconfig, and click Reset.

Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig on the gateway and type a new activation key.

Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.

Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.

47. What does it mean if Bob gets this result on an object search? Refer to the image below. Choose the BEST answer.

Search detailed is missing the subnet mask.

There is no object on the database with that name or that IP address.

There is no object on the database with that IP address.

Object does not have a NAT IP address.

48. Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Slow path

Firewall path

Medium path

Accelerated path

49. Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal.

Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

SmartView Tracker

SmartPortal

SmartUpdate

SmartDashboard

50. You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.

Page 6 of 11

51. How do you manage Gaia?

Through CLI and WebUI

Through CLI only

Through SmartDashboard only

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

52. Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

53. Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

License and Update

Package Repository and Licenses

Update and License & Contract

License & Contract and Package Repository

54. You have discovered suspicious activity in your network.

What is the BEST immediate action to take?

Create a policy rule to block the traffic.

Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.

Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.

Contact ISP to block the traffic.

55. How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

fw ver

fw stat

fw monitor

cpinfo

56. To install a brand new Check Point Cluster, the MegaCorp IT department bought 1 Smart-1 and 2 Security Gateway Appliances to run a cluster.

Which type of cluster is it?

Full HA Cluster

High Availability

Standalone

Distributed

57. Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Remote Access

UserCheck

AD Query

RADIUS

58. SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs.

What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Smart Cloud Services

Load Sharing Mode Services

Threat Agent Solution

Public Cloud Services

59. Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Quick Mode Complete

Aggressive Mode Complete

Main Mode Complete

IKE Mode Complete

60. Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because the iPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R77 Firewall Rule Base.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:

1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.

2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected.

3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action.

4) Install policy.

Ms McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable.

What should she do?

Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule “Redirect HTTP connections to an authentication (captive) portal”.

Have the security administrator reboot the firewall.

Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role.

Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad.

Page 7 of 11

61. Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA, but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She can SSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been able to SCP files to it.

What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?

She needs to edit /etc/SSHd/SSHd_config and add the Standard Mode account.

She needs to run sysconfig and restart the SSH process.

She needs to edit /etc/scpusers and add the Standard Mode account.

She needs to run cpconfig to enable the ability to SCP files.

62. What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

63. If the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a security policy, what does the firewall send to the client?

Nothing

TCP FIN

TCP RST

ICMP unreachable

64. Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all of the following except:

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

65. Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?

“Encrypt” action in the Rule Base

Permanent Tunnels

“VPN” column in the Rule Base

Configuration checkbox “Accept all encrypted traffic”

66. Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

AES-128

AES-256

DES

3DES

67. Fill in the blank: The _________ software blade enables Application Security policies to allow, block, or limit website access based on user, group, and machine identities.

Application Control

Data Awareness

URL Filtering

Threat Emulation

68. Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

SHA-256

SHA-200

MD5

SHA-128

69. In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

70. Which R77 GUI would you use to see number of packets accepted since the last policy install?

SmartView Monitor

SmartView Tracker

SmartDashboard

SmartView Status

Page 8 of 11

71. What is the SOLR database for?

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

Writes data to the database and full text search

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

72. Which remote Access Solution is clientless?

Checkpoint Mobile

Endpoint Security Suite

SecuRemote

Mobile Access Portal

73. Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

74. Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

backup

snapshot

Database Revision

migrate export

75. What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

Choose the BEST answer.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

There is a blade reporting a problem

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

76. Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

User Center

Package repository

Download Center Web site

License and Contract repository

77. Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled

It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually

It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table

With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing change

78. What is the difference between an event and a log?

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

Logs and Events are synonyms

79. Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.

After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site.

What happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:

user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateways again.

FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.

user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication

FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.

80. What is true about the IPS-Blade?

in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

Page 9 of 11

81. What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Monitoring the status of processes

Sending and receiving logs

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

Generating and modifying certificates

82. Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

A worldwide collaborative security network

83. The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump.

How can you achieve this requirement?

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

84. Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Symmetric routing

Failovers

Asymmetric routing

Anti-Spoofing

85. As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?

Remove the service HTTP from the column Service in Rule 4.

Modify the column VPN in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic.

Nothing at all

Modify the columns Source or Destination in Rule 4

86. Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Security Gateway

Management container

Management server

Security Gateway container

87. Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?

IP Appliance Voyager

snapshot

GAiA WebUI

cpinfo

88. Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Perpetual and Trial

Plug-and-play and Evaluation

Subscription and Perpetual

Evaluation and Subscription

89. Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Always delivers a file to user

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

Delivers file only if no threats found

90. When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?

User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file

User Name, Password, Management Server IP

Password, Management Server IP

Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP

Page 10 of 11

91. You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost-effective way to upgrade your Gateways.

Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?

SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor

SmartLSM and SmartUpdate

SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker

SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate

92. You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher.

How can you enable them?

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

fw ctl miltik pq enable

93. Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

cphaprob state

cphaprob status

cphaprob

cluster state

94. Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

System backup

Save Configuration

Migrate

snapshot

95. Mesh and Star are two types of VPN topologies.

Which statement below is TRUE about these types of communities?

A star community requires Check Point gateways, as it is a Check Point proprietary technology.

In a star community, satellite gateways cannot communicate with each other.

In a mesh community, member gateways cannot communicate directly with each other.

In a mesh community, all members can create a tunnel with any other member.

96. You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor.

Unfortunately, you get the message:

“There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor”.

What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.

Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.

Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.

Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.

Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.

97. Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Identity Awareness

Data Loss Prevention

URL Filtering

Application Control

98. An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R77 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).

Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.

If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute.

Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this behavior?

The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GR

Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.

The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R77 Security Gateway cannot distinguish between GRE sessions. This is a known issue with GR

Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.

The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartView Tracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of the day.

The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffic. Disable all VPN configuration to the partner site to enable proper logging.

99. An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

AD Query

Browser-Based Authentication

Identity Agents

Terminal Servers Agent

100. Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

Page 11 of 11

101. Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Dynamic ID

RADIUS

Username and Password

Certificate

102. What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

ifconfig -a

show interfaces

show interfaces detail

show configuration interface

103. What command would show the API server status?

cpm status

api restart

api status

show api status

104. After the initial installation the First Time Configuration Wizard should be run. Select the BEST answer.

First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the Unified SmartConsole.

First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the command line or from the WebU

First time Configuration Wizard can only be run from the WebU

Connection to the internet is required before running the First Time Configuration wizard.

105. What is also referred to as Dynamic NAT?

Automatic NAT

Static NAT

Manual NAT

Hide NAT

106. Fill in the blank: The ________ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

Shared policy packages

Shared policies

Concurrent policy packages

Concurrent policies

107. The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.

What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated

The connection required a Security server

Acceleration is not enabled

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself

108. Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

SSL

Captive Portal

PKI

RSA

109. Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ .

Software container; software package

Software blade; software container

Software package; signature

Signature; software blade

Download CCSA 156-215.81 Dumps For Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81

Download CCSA 156-215.81 Dumps For Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81

Share this post

Author

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

Related Posts

Check Point Certified Cloud Specialist 156-560 Dumps Questions

Check Point CCME 156-835 Actual Practice Exam Questions

Try CCSE 156-315.81 Dumps To Pass Check Point Certified Security Expert R81

Try Free Check Point CCTE 156-585 Practice Exam Questions