Pass Cisco ENCOR 350-401 Exam Successfully in Your First Attempt

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1. Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘ UP ’ action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'log ging directly to console'

event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘ UP ’ action 1.0 gets 'log ging directly to console'

event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘ UP ’ action 1.0 string 'log ging directly to console'

event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘ UP ’ action 1.0 puts 'log ging directly to console'

2. An engineer must configure an ACL that permits packets which include an ACK in the TCP header.

Which entry must be included in the ACL?

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack

access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack

3. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec profiles.

Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two).

Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set ACL, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.

Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode ipsec ipv4.

Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the AC

Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.

Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24.

4. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form?

network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0 area 0

network 20.1.1.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255.255 area 0

network 20.1.1.2 0.0.255.255 area 0

5. Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?

onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric

gather telemetry data from vEdge routers

distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers

manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric

6. Refer to the exhibit.

MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces.

What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared?

The packet is discarded on router B

The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation

The packet arrives on router C fragmented

The packet is discarded on router A

7. Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?

ETR

ITR

8. Which characteristic distinguishes Ansible from Chef?

Ansible uses Ruby to manage configurations. Chef uses YAML to manage configurations.

The Ansible server can run on Linux, Unix or Windows. The Chef server must run on Linux or Unix.

Ansible pushes the configuration to the client. Chef client pulls the configuration from the server.

Ansible lacks redundancy support for the primary server. Chef runs two primary servers in active/active mode.

9. Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

monitor

bridge

local

sniffer

10. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209.165.201.0/27 via BR1?

Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.

Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Set the weight attribute to 65,535 on BR1 toward PE1.

Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound.

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11. What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN?

provide the routing underlay and overlay for VXLAN headers

dynamically discover the location of end hosts in a VXLAN fabric

encapsulate and de-encapsulate traffic into and out of the VXLAN fabric

statically point to end host locations of the VXLAN fabric

12. Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

HTTP Status Code: 200

HTTP Status Code: 302

HTTP Status Code: 401

HTTP Status Code: 504

13. How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?

It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.

It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.

It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.

It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.

14. Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.)

It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation.

The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses.

Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.

15. Which statement about TLS is accurate when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?

It is used for HTTP and HTTPS requests.

It requires certificates for authentication.

It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server.

It is not supported on Cisco devices.

16. An engineer is describing QoS to a client.

Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)

Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible.

Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic.

Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible.

Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate.

Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it.

17. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.

18. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet?

ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload

ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload

ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload

ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload

19. What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when service password encryption is enabled on an IOS device?

The enable secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms.

The enable password cannot be decrypted.

The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method.

There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically.

20. Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming?

auto/desirable

desirable/desirable

desirable/auto

auto/auto

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21. In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings?

fabric control plane node

fabric wireless controller

fabric border node

fabric edge node

22. What is a characteristic of MACsec?

802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol, which negotiates encryption keys based on the primary session key from a successful 802.1X session.

802.1AE is negotiated using Cisco AnyConnect NAM and the SAP protocol.

802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol using keys generated via the Diffie-Hellman algorithm (anonymous encryption mode).

802.1AE provides encryption and authentication services.

23. Based on the output below, which Python cod e shows the value of the "upTime" key?

json_data = response.json() print(json_data[‘response’][0]['upTime'])

json_data = response.json() print(json_data['response'][0]['upTime'])

json_data = json.loads(response.text) print(json_data['response']['family']['upTime']

json_data = response.json() print(json_data['response']['family']['upTime']

24. Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP version is changed from 1 to 2?

No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OU

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.

25. Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of commands on router R1 allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

RouterR1(config)#int f0/0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#int f0/1 RouterR1(config)#ip nat outside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#access-list 1 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 interface f0/1 overload

RouterR1(config)#int f0/0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#int f0/1 RouterR1(config)#ip nat outside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.101 155.1.1.101 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.102 155.1.1.102 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.103 155.1.1.103

RouterR1(config)#int f0/0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat outside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#int f0/1 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.101 155.1.1.101 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.102 155.1.1.102 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.103 155.1.1.103

26. A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process.

Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.)

Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command.

Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty.

Increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command.

Configure the logging delimiter feature.

Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line.

27. Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

PULL

PUSH

PATCH

REMOVE

ADD

HEAD

28. An engineer must protect their company against ransomware attacks.

Which solution allows the engineer to block the execution stage and prevent file encryption?

Use Cisco Firepower and block traffic to TOR networks.

Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Malicious Activity Protection engine enabled.

Use Cisco Firepower with Intrusion Policy and snort rules blocking SMB exploitation.

Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Exploit Prevention engine enabled.

29. How do agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools compare?

Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.

Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves.

Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.

Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

30. Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary?

GLBP

HSRP v2

VRRP

HSRP v1

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31. How is a data modeling language used?

To enable data to be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure.

To provide human readability to scripting languages.

32. Refer to the exhibit.

After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2:

Based on the output from switch SW1 and the log message received on switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Configure the same protocol on the EtherChannel on switch SW1 and SW2.

Define the correct port members on the EtherChannel on switch SW1.

Correct the configuration error on Interface Gi0/0 on switch SW1.

Correct the configuration error on Interface Gi0/1 on switch SW1.

33. Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network?

policing

classification

marking

shaping

34. Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two.)

Oracle VM VirtualBox

Microsoft Hyper-V

VMware server

VMware ESXi

Microsoft Virtual PC

35. What is the role of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment?

It performs authentication and authorization.

It manages the control plane.

It is the centralized network management system.

It manages the data plane.

36. What is a characteristic of a virtual machine?

It must run the same operating system as its host.

It is deployable without a hypervisor to host it.

It must be aware of other virtual machines, in order to allocate physical resources for them.

It relies on hypervisors to allocate computing resources for it.

37. Where is radio resource management performed in a Cisco SD-Access wireless solution?

DNA Center

control plane node

wireless controller

Cisco CMX

38. Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

vBond

vSmart

vManage

vEdge

39. What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.)

vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet.

The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments.

Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode.

Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based.

Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based.

40. A network engineer configures BGP between R1 and R2. Both routers use BGP peer group CORP and are set up to use MD5 authentication.

This message is logged to the console of router R1:

“ May 5 39:85:55.469: %TCP-6-BADAUTH ” Invalid MD5 digest from 10.10.10.1 (29832) to 10.120.10.1 (179) tebleid -0

Which two configurations allow a peering session to form between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor PEER password Cisco

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

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41. What do Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide?

interface between the controller and the consumer

RESTful API interface for orchestrator communication

interface between the controller and the network devices

NETCONF API interface for orchestrator communication

42. Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

SSL

MD5

AES128

AES256

43. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics of PIM Dense Mode from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

44. Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

The AP is joining a primed WLC

The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2

The AP multicast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3

The WLC is running a different software version

45. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.

46. In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one AP to another on a different access switch using a single WLC?

Layer 3

inter-xTR

auto anchor

fast roam

47. What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose two.)

Cloud costs adjust up or down depending on the amount of resources consumed. On-prem costs for hardware, power, and space are on-going regardless of usage.

Cloud resources scale automatically to an increase in demand. On-prem requires additional capital expenditure.

In a cloud environment, the company is in full control of access to their data. On-prem risks access to data due to service provider outages.

In a cloud environment, the company controls technical issues. On-prem environments rely on the service provider to resolve technical issues.

Cloud deployments require long implementation times due to capital expenditure processes. On-prem deployments can be accomplished quickly using operational expenditure processes.

48. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

interface Ethernet0/0 ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf bank network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0

interface Ethernet0/0 vrf forwarding hotel ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf Hotel network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

interface Ethernet0/0 vrf forwarding bank ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf bank network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

interface Ethernet0/0 ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf hotel network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0

49. Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis?

Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT

Cisco Stealthwatch system

Advanced Malware Protection

Cisco Web Security Appliance

50. At which layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

session layer

northbound APIs

EEM applets or scripts

YAML output from responses to API calls

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51. What is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor?

better application performance

improved security because the underlying OS is eliminated

improved density and scalability

ability to operate on hardware that is running other OSs

52. What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?

ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware

less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises

faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased

lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other

53. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?

The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.

The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.

A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed.

54. What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.)

reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements

smaller Layer 2 domain

increased security

speedy deployment

reduced IP and MAC address requirements

55. An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process.

Which action should the engineer use? event manager applet LogMessage event routing network 172.30.197.0/24 type all

action 1 syslog msg ג OSPF ROUTING ERROR ג

action 1 syslog send ג OSPF ROUTING ERROR ג

action 1 syslog pattern ג OSPF ROUTING ERROR ג

action 1 syslog write ג OSPF ROUTING ERROR ג

56. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two.)

R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0

R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

R1#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

57. Which three methods does Cisco DNA Center use to discover devices? (Choose three.)

CDP

SNMP

LLDP

ping

NETCONF

a specified range of IP addresses

58. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0/24 network?

R2 standby 1 priority 90 standby 1 preempt

R2 standby 1 priority 100 standby 1 preempt

R1 standby 1 preempt R2 standby 1 priority 90

R1 standby 1 preempt R2 standby 1 priority 100

59. Which method does the enable secret password option use to encrypt device passwords?

MD5

PAP

CHAP

AES

60. What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?

process adapters

Command Runner

intent-based APIs

domain adapters

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61. What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?

It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between itself and the primary controller.

It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs.

It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller.

62. A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points are joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and

have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same.

Which type of roam occurs?

inter-controller

inter-subnet

intra-VLAN

intra-controller

63. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure types on the right.

64. What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

65. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router, the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected.

Which action will resolve the configuration error?

configure matching hold and delay timers

configure matching key-strings

configure matching priority values

configure unique virtual IP addresses

66. In a Cisco DNA Center Plug and Play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed?

The device has not been assigned a workflow.

The device could not be added to the fabric.

The device had an error and could not be provisioned.

The device is from a third-party vendor.

67. Refer to the exhibit.

What step resolves the authentication issue?

use basic authentication

change the port to 12446

target 192.168.100.82 in the URI

restart the vsmart host

68. A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

✑ FHRP redundancy

✑ multivendor router environment

✑ IPv4 and IPv6 hosts

Which protocol does the design include?

VRRP version 2

VRRP version 3

GLBP

HSRP version 2

69. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.

70. Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.)

APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs.

When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller.

FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other.

FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure.

FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments.

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71. When a wired client connects to an edge switch in a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network?

edge node

Identity Services Engine

RADIUS server

control-plane node

72. What it the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?

It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.

It allows LISP to be applied as a network virtualization overlay though encapsulation.

It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router.

It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.

73. A customer has completed the installation of a Wi-Fi 6 greenfield deployment at their new campus. They want to leverage Wi-Fi 6 enhanced speeds on the trusted employee WLAN. To configure the employee WLAN,

which two Layer 2 security policies should be used? (Choose two.)

WPA2 (AES)

802.1X

OPEN

WEP

WPA (AES)

74. Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?

MSS

MTU

MRU

window size

75. Which protocol infers that a YANG data model is being used?

SNMP

RESTCONF

REST

NX-API

76. Which command set configures RSPAN to capture outgoing traffic from VLAN 3 on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 while ignoring other VLAN traffic on the same interface?

monitor session 2 source interface gigabitethernet0/3 rx monitor session 2 filter vlan 3

monitor session 2 source interface gigabitethernet0/3 rx monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 - 2, 4 - 4094

monitor session 2 source interface gigabitethernet0/3 tx monitor session 2 filter vlan 3

monitor session 2 source interface gigabitethernet0/3 tx monitor session 2 filter vlan 1- 2, 4 - 4094

77. Which statement about VXLAN is true?

VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries.

VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention.

VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network.

VXLAN uses TCP as the transport protocol over the physical data center network.

78. Which DHCP option provides the CAPWAP APs with the address of the wireless controller(s)?

150

79. An engineer reviews a router ’ s logs and discovers the following entry.

What is the event ’ s logging severity level?

Router# *Jan 01 38:24:04.401: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up

error

warning

informational

notification

80. Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

A)

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

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81. Which feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF?

load balancing of unequal-cost paths

load balance over four equal-cost paths

uses interface bandwidth to determine best path

per-packet load balancing over multiple paths

82. Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments in a VXLAN environment?

VNID

switch fabric

VTEP

host switch

83. Refer to the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router I

Router NewYork because it has a higher router I

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

84. Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting, a network engineer finds that after the user is disconnected, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required.

The engineer also notices these message logs:

AP 'AP2' is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:54:04 PM

AP 'AP4' is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:44:49 PM

AP 'AP7' is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:34:32 PM

Which action reduces the user impact?

enable coverage hole detection

increase the AP heartbeat timeout

enable BandSelect

increase the dynamic channel assignment interval

85. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router. However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet.

What explains this behavior?

Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router.

After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect.

Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address.

The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.

86. Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure?

RSPAN

ERSPAN

VSPAN

IPSPAN

87. Which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

Oracle VM VirtualBox

Citrix XenServer

VMware server

Microsoft Virtual PC

88. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

89. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the functions they perform on the right. Not all options are used.

90. Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring an IPsec VPN, an engineer enters the show command to verify the ISAKMP SA status.

What does the status show?

VPN peers agreed on parameters for the ISAKMP S

Peers have exchanged keys, but ISAKMP SA remains unauthenticated.

ISAKMP SA is authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode.

ISAKMP SA has been created, but it has not continued to form.

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91. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.